Chief General Manager Solved Paper - 297/2011

Question Paper Code: 2/2015/OL
Category Code: 297/2011
Exam: Chief General Manager Society Category
Date of Test 27-01-2015
1.         Who has won the shanti swaroop Bhatnagar award 2014 for Biological science
(A) Roop Malik           (B) G.Venkatamohan
(C) Anurag Agarwal    (D) K.Ramakrishnaprasad
Answer: A
2.         The place where Ayyankali started a school for the depressed classes in 1904
(A) Vizhinjam             (B) Varkala
(C) Venganur             (D) Panmana
Answer: C
3.         'Mathrubhoomi', the national daily in Malayalam started its publication in
(A) 1922          (B) 1923
(C) 1924                    (D) 1925
Answer: B
4.         What was the slogan for Asian games held at Incheon 2014
(A) Green, Clean and Friendship
(B) We cheer, We share, We win
(C) The Games of your life
(D) Diversity shines Here
Answer: D
5.         ……........... is the centre of Mukuthisamaram held in Kerala
(A) Arattupuzha          (B) Chengara
(C) Panthalam            (D) Chempazhanthi
Answer: C
6.         Which amendment of Indian Constitution gave Delhi the title 'National Capital Territory'
(A) 67              (B) 69
(C) 68              (D) 86
Answer: B
7.         Which among the following is the publication of Kerala Grandhasala Sangam
(A) Keli                      (B) Thaliru
(C) Grandhalokam      (D) Malayalee
Answer: C
8.         Jeevitha Samaram is the autobiography of ..................
(A) Cherukadu           (B) C.Kesavan
(C) T.K.Madhavan      (D) Vagbhatananda
Answer: B
9.         ………........ is the free medical treatment scheme of Kerala government to children below 18 years suffering severe diseases
(A) Snehitha               (B) Thalolam
(C) Kaithangu             (D) Kiranam
Answer: B
10.     Which among the following was a Bhuddhist centre of ancient Kerala
(A) Vizhinjam             (B) Sreemoolavasam
(C) Kanthalur             (D) Ezhimalai
Answer: B
11.     The minimum number of members required for registration of a cooperative society are
(A) Two           (B) Seven
(C) Ten            (D) Twenty
Answer: Question Cancelled
12.     …………… is the supreme and final authority of a co-operative society
(A) Government         (B) The General Body
(C) Registrar              (D) Secretary
Answer: B
13.     The first co-operative Societies Act in India was passed in the year
(A) 1912          (B) 1904
(C) 1969                    (D) 1903
Answer: B
14.     The word co-operation is derived from the Latin word
(A) Co-partnership      (B) Co-op
(C) Co operari            (D) None
Answer: C
15.     The home for co-operative store movement
(A) Germany              (B) USA
(C) England               (D) Denmark
Answer: C
16.     The first co-operative minister of Kerala
(A) Joseph Mundassery        (B) Sri Baby John
(C) M.V Raghavan               (D) None of the above
Answer: A
17.     The remuneration given to the president of a society is called
(A) Salary                  (B) Commission
(C) Honorarium                    (D) Bonus
Answer: C
18.     The co operative society having the area of operation to the whole of the state is called
(A) Primary Co operative Society    (B) Apex Society
(C) Central Co operative                 (D) None of the above
Answer: B
19.     The Father of co-operative movement is
(A) Dr Gadgil              (B) Robert Owen
(C) Raiffeisen             (D) Dr. William King
Answer: B
20.     District level co operative banks are known as
(A) Urban Banks        (B) Primary Banks
(C) Apex Bank           (D) Central Bank
Answer: D
21.     To become a member of credit society an individual should have attain the age of
(A) 18              (B) 28
(C) 25              (D) 21
Answer: A
22.     The objective of creating reserve fund by the co-operative society is
(A) To meet unforeseen losses
(B) To pay off the debt of the society
(C) to pay off the debts due to government
(D) To pay dividend
Answer: A
23.     The motto of cooperative society is based on
(A) all for each
(B) each for all
(C) each for all and all for each
(D) all for all
Answer: C
24.     The main refinancing agency of co-operative banks
(A) RBI            (B) SBI
Answer: C
25.     Audit of co operative society is done by
(A) Charted Accountant
(B) Co -operative department of India
(C) Co operative Department of the State
(D) Internal Auditor
Answer: C
26.     Hawthorne experiment is associated with :
(A) Henry Fayol                    (B) Fedrick W. Taylor
(C) Theodore Levitt              (D) George Elton Mayo
Answer: D
27.     An obligation to remain with an organization for moral or ethical reasons is :
(A) Continuance commitment          (B) Affective commitment
(C) Normative commitment             (D) Organizational commitment
Answer: C
28.     Diversification by adding new, unrelated products or services for present customers is referred to as :
(A) Product development      (B) Conglomerate diversification
(C) Concentric diversification (D) Horizontal diversification
Answer: D
29.     According to BCG Matrix, which division represents businesses with high growth rate and low market share ?
(A) Stars                    (B) Dogs
(C) Question Marks    (D) Cash Cows
Answer: C
30.     Who translates the corporate strategy into concrete objectives for individual business ?
(A) Functional level managers         (B) Corporate level managers
(C) Business level managers           (D) Multi level managers
Answer: C
31.     Public distribution system is specifically associated with
(A) Marketing system           (B) Retailing system
(C) Selling system                (D) Industrial system
Answer: B
32.     …………… = Kindliness × Justice
(A) Fair remuneration
(B) Subordination of individual interest to general interest
(C) Stability of tenure of personnel
(D) Equity
Answer: D
33.     Brain storming is a group activity exercise applied to get :
(A) Single solution to single problem
(B) Many solutions to a single problem
(C) Many solutions to many problems
(D) Single solution to many problems
Answer: B
34.     Which of the following is not a step in MBO ?
(A) Setting of organizational objectives
(B) Formulating departmental objectives
(C) Identifying the needs of the labour force
(D) Establishing key result areas
Answer: C
35.     Which of the following is not a qualitative method of forecasting ?
(A) Econometric models                 (B) Intuition method
(C) Panel Consensus method         (D) Delphy method
Answer: A
36.     ………….. propounded dual factor theory of motivation
(A) Abraham Maslow            (B) Douglas McGregor
(C) Fedrick Herzberg            (D) Henry Fayol
Answer: C
37.     The Multinational corporation that experimented 'Six Sigma' for the first time was :
(A) Maruti Udyog Ltd            (B) Ford Motor Company
(C) Motorola,Inc.                  (D) Toyota Motor Corporation
Answer: C
38.     The ability to influence a group towards the achievement of a vision or sets of goals is termed as:
(A) Mission                (B) Span of control
(C) Leadership           (D) Motivation
Answer: C
39.     The planned elimination of of jobs in an organization for cost cutting, declining market share, previous overaggressive hiring and growth, or outsourcing is termed as :
(A) Rightsizing            (B) Layoff
(C) Retrenchment      (D) Downsizing
Answer: D
40.     Which of the following is not associated with Michael Porter's competitive forces in industry analysis?
(A) Development of substitute products
(B) Bargaining power of suppliers
(C) Bargaining power of employees
(D) Potential entry of new competitors
Answer: C
41.     The term 'not binding in law' related to
(A) Valid contract       (B) Voidable contract
(C) Void contract        (D) Unenforceable contract
Answer: C
42.     As per Indian Contract Act, which of the statement is not true
(A) Consideration of the contract may be past, present or future
(B) Consideration may move from the promissee or any other person
(C) A wager is an agreement by which money is payable by one person on the happening of an event only
(D) Both (A) & (B)
Answer: C
43.     Contract of guarantee described as per section…………..
(A) 126            (B) 112
(C) 136            (D) 146
Answer: A
44.     In a contract of guarantee, a person who promises to discharge another’s liability, is known as …………..
(A) Principal debtor     (B) Creditor
(C) Surety                  (D) Indemnified
Answer: C
45.     Which of the following statement is true as per Indian Contract Act
(A) Past Consideration does not the part of Indian contract act
(B) Consideration must be adequate
(C)  Consideration must result in a benefit to both parties
(D) None of these
Answer: D
46.     The Consumer Protection Act provides for a three tier consumer disputes redressal system, in which the National Commission was established by the Central Government in August ………….
(A) 1986          (B) 1987
(C) 1988                    (D) 1989
Answer: C
47.     Section 14 of IRDA Act,1999 lays down ………….
(A) Objectives of IRDA
(B) Duties, Powers and Functions of IRDA
(C) Penalties of IRDA
(D) Supervision of IRDA
Answer: B
48.     TRAI should have a chair person. It should have a minimum …………. members but number of members should not exceed ………….
(A) 2,5             (B) 3,6
(C) 2,8             (D) 2,6
Answer: D
49.     As per Industrial Policy Resolution 1956, Industries are classified in to
(A) Schedule A,B        (B) Schedule A,B and C
(C) Schedule A only    (D) Schedule A, B, C and D
Answer: B
50.     Which of the following statement is not true
(A) Company Law Board was constituted by the Central Government as an independent institution in 1991 as per Companies Act 1956
(B) The members of Company Law Board are appointed by Central Government
(C) The maximum number of members of Company Law Board is appointed by Central Government
(D) Any voluntary consumer organization registered under the Societies registration Act 1860 can file a complaint to Consumer Protection Act.
Answer: C
51.     W, X and Y jointly promised to pay Rs 8, 00,000 to Z. Before performance of contract Y died. Here the contract
(A) Becomes void on Y's death
(B) should be performed by W and X along with Y’s legal representative
(C) should be performed by W and X alone
(D) Should be renewed between W, X and Z
Answer: Question Cancelled
52.     As per Consumer Protection Act 1986, National commission was established and it started its functioning W.e.f.
(A) 1988          (B) 1992
(C) 1987                    (D) 1993
Answer: A
53.     The concept ‘bancassurance’ was originated in ……………….
(A) France       (B) china
(C) India          (D) USA
Answer: A
54.     An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties there to but not at the option of the other or others is a
(A) Valid contract       (B) Void contract
(C) Voidable contract  (D) Illegal contract
Answer: C
55.     The delivery of goods by one person to another for some specific purpose, is known as
(A) Bailment               (B) Pledge
(C) Hypothecation      (D) Mortgage
Answer: A
56.     Power Distance Index of 77 compared to the World average of 56.5 for India indicates
(A) High level of political corruption
(B) High level of Gender Empowerment Index
(C) High level of equality of power and wealth within the society
(D) High level of inequality of power and wealth within the society
Answer: D
57.     Which among the following is not a model related to social responsibility?
(A) Carroll's Model      (B) Orgburn's Model
(C) Halal's Model        (D) Ackerman's Model
Answer: B
58.     …………… refers to the enterprises owned and managed jointly by the private and government sectors
(A) Co-operative sector        (B) Public sector
(C) Joint sector                    (D) Social sector
Answer: C
59.     Which, of the following, is not related to Water Pollution Protection Legislations in India?
(A) The Easement Act,1882
(B) The Indian Fisheries Act,1897
(C) The Indian Stream Vessel Act,1917
(D) The Water Preservation Act, 1925
Answer: D
60.     Kyoto Protocol pertains to:
(A) Globalization                   (B) Environment protection
(C) Industrial development    (D) Privatization
Answer: B
61.     The Restrictive Trade Practices are provided in :
(A) Section 33(1)        (B) Section 33(2)
(C) Section 33(3)        (D) Section 33(4)
Answer: A
62.     Set of processes, laws and institutions that affects the way in which a corporation is directed, administered or controlled, to facilitate the interest of stake holders, is termed as:
(A) Environmental ethics
(B) Corporate governance
(C) Corporate social responsibility
(D) Corporate sustainability
Answer: B
63.     Which of the following is not the main objective of Fiscal Policy in India ?
(A) To ensure price stability
(B) To increase liquidity in the economy
(C) To minimize inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth
(D) To promote employment opportunities
Answer: B
64.     Which of the following is not a method of social audit ?
(A) Financial Statement Format Audit
(B) Social Process Audit
(C) Constituency Group Audit
(D) Employee Benefit Audit
Answer: D
65.     Who, among the following, is empowered to supersede the Competition Commission of India ?
(A) President of India            (B) Central Government
(C) Supreme Court               (D) MRTP Commission
Answer: B
66.     The investment limits of micro enterprises engaged in manufacturing sector, as per MSMED Act, 2006, is :
(A) Rs.10 lakhs          (B) Rs.25 lakhs
(C) Rs.2 crores          (D) Rs.5 crores
Answer: B
67.     Build, operate and transfer concept is envisaged in:
(A) Real estate           (B) Power generation
(C) Airlines                 (D) Highways
Answer: D
68.     Which of the following theory best defines the relationship between currencies on the basis of rate of inflation ?
(A) Interest rate parity theory
(B) Relative inflation theory
(C) Foreign exchange parity theory
(D) Purchasing power parity theory
Answer: D
69.     Which of the following is not related to the elements of internal environment ?
(A) Money and capital market         (B) Marketing capability
(C) Operational capability                (D) Personnel capability
Answer: A
70.     Which is the apex body of various exporters and export promotion organisations in India?
(A) Federation of Indian Exporters Organization
(B) Trade fair Authority of India
(C) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India
(D) Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics
Answer: A
71.     The exchange rate fixed on the basis of demand and supply of currencies is called ..........
(A) Flexible rate          (B) Forward rate
(C) Floating rate         (D) Multiple rate.
Answer: C
72.     “BOLT System” in Indian Securities Market is related to
(A) NSE Stock Exchange
(B) BSE Stock Exchange
(C) Over The Counter Exchange of India
(D) Multi Commodity Stock exchange
Answer: B
73.     Call money rate is applicable for a very short period to ……..
(A) Inter bank advances
(B) Bank to Reserve Bank advances
(C) Reserve Bank to bank advances
(D) Commercial bank to industrial bank advances
Answer: A
74.     The ceiling on the amount of insurance cover is …………
(A) Rs 50,000/-          (B) Rs 10,000/-
(C) Rs 10,00,000/-     (D) Rs 1,00,000/-
Answer: D
75.     Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India provides ...........
(A) Guarantee to credit institution
(B) Credit risk insurance cover to exporters
(C) Stability to banking system
(D) None of the above.
Answer: B
76.     The major player in Indian Money Market is ...........
(A) Cooperative Banks          (B) Indigenous Banks
(C) Commercial Banks          (D) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: C
77.     Which among the following is not a category of NPA?
(A) Substandard Assets        (B) Doubtful Assets
(C) Loss Assets                   (D) Devaluated Assets
Answer: D
78.     Who is the chairman of 13th Finance Commission?
(A) Dr.C.Rangarajan   (B) Mr.Bimal Jalan
(C) Dr.Vijay L Kelkar   (D) None of the above
Answer: C
79.     The minimum capital prescribed by the RBI for starting a new commercial bank is :
(A) Rs 1,000 Crore     (B) Rs 100 Crore
(C) Rs 10 Crore         (D) None of the above
Answer: Question Cancelled
80.     Under DIR scheme, assistance is provided in the ratio of :
(A) 7%             (B) 3%
(C)  8%            (D) 4%
Answer: D
81.     Capital adequacy norm is expressed as a percentage of ............
(A) Standard assets             (B) Risk adjusted assets
(C) Sub standard assets       (D) Investments.
Answer: B
82.     Broad money has to be sensitized through ..............
(A) CRR                     (B) SLR
(C) REPO Rate                    (D) All of the above
Answer: D
83.     “VSAT” Technology was first followed for online trading by …………..
(A) BSE           (B) NSE
(C) OTCEI       (D) ISE
Answer: B
84.     NABARD has taken over the entire functions of .................
(A) ARDC                  (B) ACD of RBI
(C) RPCD of RBI        (D) All of the above
Answer: Question Cancelled
85.     Any complaint should be lodged with the Ombudsman when ..........
(A) There is any deficiency in banking services.
(B) No reply is received from the bank within two months of the receipt of complaint.
(C) The complaint is rejected and a period of one year has not been lapsed from the date of rejection.
(D) (B) & (C) together.
Answer: D
86.     Decrease in the value of intangible asset is called ………….
(A) depreciation          (B) depletion
(C) amortization         (D) fluctuation
Answer: C
87.     Which of the following is not an intangible asset
(A) goodwill                (B) patent
(C) copy rights           (D) preliminary expenses
Answer: D
88.     Trial balance will detect
(A) error of commission        (B) error of principle
(C) error of omission            (D) compensating error
Answer: A
89.     Transactions and other events are accounted and presented in accordance with
(A) legal form
(B) materiality
(C) substance and economic reality
(D) tax impact
Answer: Question Cancelled
90.     Which of the following equation is correct?
(A) share premium = issue price + par value
(B) share premium = issue price – par value
(C) share premium = issue price / par value
(D) share premium =issue price x par value
Answer: B
91.     The financing need is equal to
(A) fixed assets – current assets + current liabilities
(B) fixed assets – current assets – current liabilities
(C) fixed asset + current assets + current liabilities
(D) fixed asset + current assets – current liabilities
Answer: D
92.     Which of the following statement is not true?
(A) The partnership agreement cannot override the 1890 Partnership Act
(B) capital contributions do not have to be equal from each partner
(C) interest on capital is a reward for the different amounts of work partners may perform
(D) Not all partners can have limited liability in a limited partnership
Answer: C
93.     All of the following influence capital budgeting cash flow exept
(A) accelerated depreciation
(B) salvage value
(C) tax rate changes
(D) method of project financing used
Answer: D
94.     When capital must be rationed, the firm should rank project according to their:
(A) profitability index             (B) net present value
(C) internal rate of return      (D) none of these
Answer: Question Cancelled
95.     Which of the following does not make the firm more vulnerable to financial distress?
(A) High sensitivity of the company's revenues to the general level of economic activity
(B) High proportion of fixed to variable costs
(C) physical capital assets which are relatively illiquid and difficult-to-market
(D) the tax shield
Answer: D
96.     Which of the following is the main objective of cash management?
(A) Maximization of cash balance
(B) Minimization of cash balance
(C) Optimization of cash balance
(D) Zero cash balance
Answer: C
97.     Which of the following is true for Net Income Approach?
(A) Higher Equity is better     (B) Higher Debt is better
(C) Debt Ratio is irrelevant    (D) None of the above
Answer: B
98.     Financial Leverage is calculated as:
(A) EBIT ÷ Contribution         (B) EBIT ÷ PBT
(C) EBIT ÷ Sales                  (D) EBIT ÷ Variable Cost
Answer: B
99.     Which of the following items is not an appropriation of profit for a limited company?
(A) Debenture interest payable
(B) transfer to reserve
(C) preference dividend payable
(D) Ordinary dividend payable
Answer: A
100. Which of the following would not appear in the trial balance as debit balance
(A) returns outwards   (B) carriage outwards
(C) returns inwards     (D) carriage outwards
Answer: A

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