Chief General Manager Solved Paper - 296/2011

Question Paper Code: 1/2015/OL
Category Code: 296/2011
Exam: Chief General Manager
Date of Test 27-01-2015
1.         Regarding a bill being a money bill the certificate of the
(A) President is final                       (B) Vice President is final
(C) Speaker of Loksabha is final      (D) Finance Minister is final
Answer: C
2.         Which of the following statements concerning the power of the president is wrong
(A) No bill can become a law unless the president puts his assent on it
(B) The president has the power to nominate 12 members to the Rajya sabha and 2 Anglo Indian members to the Loksabha
(C) The president declares war and concludes treaties, subject to the provisions of the constitution
(D) The president has the power to summon, prorogue and dissolve Loksabha and Rajya sabha
Answer: D
3.         Which kind of Thullal form is used in the first work of Kunjan Nambiar (kallyana sougandhikam)
(A) Sheethangan Thullal       (B) Ottan Thullal
(C) Parayan Thullal               (D) Pana Thullal
Answer: A
4.         Herman Gundert was a member of
(A) London Missionary Society
(B) Church Missionary Society
(C) Basel Evangelical Missionary Society
(D) London Evangelical Church Missionary Society
Answer: C
5.         The Movement demanded to quit election in Travancore ,claiming the negligence of adequate reservation for communal minorities
(A) Ezhava Memmorial         (B) Nivarthana Prakshobham
(C) Malayalee Memmorial     (D) Kalpathi-Sucheendram satyagraham
Answer: B
6.         The Novel 'Narmani Putava' written by
(A) P.Valsala              (B) Sara Thomas
(C) Madhavikutty        (D) Arya Pallam
Answer: B
7.         'I Too Had A Dream' is an autobiography of
(A) Dr.Varghese kurien         (B) Pandit Ravisankar
(C) P.Govinda Pillai              (D) Dr.Lekshmi Segal
Answer: A
8.         Original name of famous personality 'Vagbhadanandan'
(A) Ananda shenoy     (B) K.P. Karuppan
(C) Kumara Guru       (D) Kunjikannan
Answer: D
9.         "It is better to light a candle than to curse the darkness" is the motto of
(A) Bharat Scout and Guides          (B) Red Cross
(C) Amnesty International               (D) Greenpeace
Answer: C
10.     The first malayalee recipient of the Saraswathi Samman
(A) Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai       (B) Lalithambika Antharjanam
(C) G. SankaraKurup                      (D) Balamani Amma
Answer: D
11.     The Vigilance Officer appointed by the government to investigate the cases of misappropriation in the society shall have the rank not below the rank of
(A) Superintendent of Police
(B) Inspector General of Police
(C) Deputy Inspector General of Police
(D) Deputy Superintendent of Police
Answer: C
12.     Maximum members of a board of directors of a primary co-operative society shall not be more than
(A) 15 members         (B) 21members
(C) 13members          (D) 7members
Answer: A
13.     Who is the custodian of cash and other valuables of a Primary Agricultural Co-operative Society
(A) Cashier      (B) Secretary
(C) President   (D) Accountant
Answer: B
14.     State Co-operative Election Commission conduct all elections of co-operative societies mentioned below except
(A) Election of Board of Directors
(B) Election of President and Vice President
(C) Election of Special General Body
(D) Election of Representative General Body
Answer: C
15.     The co-operative Development and Welfare Fund shall not be utilized for
(A) Utilizing for the developmental activities of these societies
(B) Safe guarding the damages to their assets
(C) Safe guarding the loss to their properties
(D) Expenses incurred for opening branches
Answer: B
16.     The Registrar shall appoint as per Section 71 of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act a person called
(A) Co-operative Tribunal      (B) Co-operative Ombudsman
(C) Liquidator                       (D) Sale officer
Answer: C
17.     Which among the following Co-operative Societies, election shall not be conducted on ward basis
(A) Urban Co-operative Banks
(B) Urban Co-operative Societies
(C) Primary Housing Co-operative Societies
(D) Primary Consumer Co-operative Societies
Answer: D
18.     The immovable property acquired by a society through a sale by the sale officer for realization of loan amount shall be disposed within
(A) 7 years       (B) 3 years
(C) 1 year        (D) 2 years
Answer: A
19.     Which among the following is a false statement in case of voting to a society
(A) A member admitted in a Co-operative Society within 60 days immediately prior to the date of election shall not have right to vote
(B) A nominal member shall not have right to vote
(C) A depositor shall have right to vote
(D) An ex-officio member on the committee shall have vote
Answer: C
20.     A Society shall dispose 10% of its net profit to
(A) Reserve Fund
(B) Member Relief Fund
(C) Agricultural Credit Stabilization Fund
(D) Co-operative Education Fund
Answer: B
21.     Societies which are bond to keep fluid resources are
(A) Societies having deposits
(B) Societies doing Marketing business
(C) Societies doing Consumer business only
(D) Societies dealing coir products
Answer: A
22.     Among the following which is not the privileges of a Consumer Co-operative Society
(A) Charge on land owned by its loanees
(B) Exemption from income tax
(C) Deduction from the salary of loanees
(D) Exemption from stamp duty
Answer: B
23.     The amendment of the bye-law shall have approval from
(A) Chief Executive     (B) Managing Director
(C) President             (D) General Body
Answer: D
24.     Rule 6 of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act deals with
(A) Registrar of co-operative society
(B) Model bye-law
(C) Amendment of bye-law
(D) First General Body
Answer: B
25.     Which type of societies are allowed to admit any other society as nominal or associate member
(A) Coir Societies                 (B) Scheduled Caste Societies
(C) Hand loom Societies       (D) Hospital Societies
Answer: D
26.     Which of the following would be classified by Herzberg as a hygiene factor?
(A) Achievement        (B) Company policy
(C) Promotion            (D) Responsibility
Answer: B
27.     Achievement motivation relates to
(A) Need of the person         (B) Knowledge of the person
(C) experience of the person (D) aptitude of the person.
Answer: A
28.     A transformational leader is one
(A) who is involved in organizational change
(B) who provides new ways of carrying out management.
(C) who inspires the workers to new levels by offering them a vision of a better future
(D) who tries to transform their staff by giving them rewards for what they do
Answer: C
29.     Decision making does not include:
(A) identifying the problem
(B) evaluating alternatives
(C) select a preferred alternative
(D) making forecast
Answer: D
30.     The most democratic form of organization is
(A) line             (B) line and staff
(C) functional   (D) committee
Answer: D
31.      Identify the wrong statement
(A) leadership is the ability to influence a group
(B) all leaders are managers
(C) all leaders are not managers
(D) all managers are leaders
Answer: B
32.     Which strategy would be effective when the new products have a counter cyclical sales pattern compared to an organization's present products?
(A) Forward integration         (B) market positioning
(C) Horizontal diversification  (D) Market penetration
Answer: A
33.     What does Dog symbolize in BCG matrix?
(A) high growth, high market share
(B) low growth, low market share
(C) low growth, high market share
(D) high growth, low market share
Answer: B
34.     Specific, short-term statements detailing how to achieve an organization's goals is known as
(A) vision                   (B) mission
(C) objectives             (D) operational planning
Answer: C
35.     Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message?
(A) eye contact          (B) jargon
(C) yelling                  (D) mumbling
Answer: A
36.     The factors that generate shareholder wealth are usually called
(A) key factors           (B) value drivers
(C) present values      (D) future cash flows
Answer: B
37.     What does EVA stand for
(A) Employee value analysis (B) Expected value arising
(C) Economic value added    (D) Economic value analysis
Answer: C
38.     A common method of measuring attitude of people is
(A) in-depth interviews
(B) observing people’s behavior
(C) semantic differential scales
(D) a lie detector
Answer: C
39.     Matrix structure of organization violates which key element of organizational design
(A) unity of command           (B) chain of command
(C) span of management      (D) decentralization
Answer: A
40.     Authority and responsibility are …………. to each other
(A) supplementary      (B) inconsistent
(C) contradictory        (D) complementary
Answer: D
41.     An offer kept open for acceptance over a period of time is referred to as :
(A) Counter offer        (B) Cross offer
(C) Standing offer       (D) Specific offer
Answer: C
42.     The time limit for filing a complaint before the District forum under Consumer Protection Act, 1986,is
(A) One year              (B) Two years
(C) Three years          (D) There is no such limits
Answer: B
43.     Mr.A entered into a contract with Mr.B whereby Mr.A agreed to sell heroin an illegal substance, worth Rs.50,000 to Mr.B. This is an example for:
(A) Void contract        (B) Voidable contract
(C) Quasi contract      (D) Second Party Beneficiary contract
Answer: A
44.     Section 172 of Contract Act deals with :
(A) Bailment               (B) Pledge
(C) Indemnity             (D) Lien
Answer: B
45.     The outside third party who is brought into settle a dispute and has the authority to take a decision is called:
(A) Legal expert         (B) Government
(C) An arbitrator         (D) Mentor
Answer: C
46.     Which of the following transactions does not come under the purview of bailment?
(A) Delivering goods to creditor as security of loan
(B) Delivering goods for repair with or without remuneration
(C) Delivering goods for carriage
(D) Placing ornaments in bank locker
Answer: D
47.     The term of a patent is:
(A) 10 years     (B) 14 Years
(C) 20 Years    (D) 25 Years
Answer: C
48.     'Novation' is a mode of discharge of contract by:
(A) lapse of time         (B) agreement
(C) operation of law    (D) performance of contract
Answer: B
49.     From the following identify a statement that is not true:
(A) Principal is bound by the act of agent done within the scope of his authority
(B) Authority given to borrow money makes the principal liable even if the agent borrows beyond authorized limits
(C) Principal is liable for fraud committed by his agent acting in the course of his business
(D) Authority given to sell goods authorizes the agent to borrow money by pledging the goods
Answer: D
50.     Who is the Chairman of the Central Consumer Protection Council?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(C) Chief Justice of the High Court
(D) Minister in Charge of Consumer Affairs
Answer: D
51.     Who appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner under 'The Right to Information Act, 2005' ?
(A) Chief Minister       (B) Governor
(C) President of India (D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Answer: B
52.     The Consumer Education and Research Centre is located at :
(A) Bombay     (B) Ahmadabad
(C) Kanpur       (D) Delhi
Answer: B
53.     The damages that can be awarded even if the aggrieved party has not suffered any loss, is referred to as:
(A) exemplary damages        (B) special damages
(C) ordinary damages           (D) nominal damages
Answer: D
54.     From the following, identify the one which is not a main objective of ‘The Right to Information Act,2005’;
(A) To ensure greater and more effective access to information
(B) To make the Right to Information Act more progressive, participatory and meaningful
(C) To have provisions to ensure maximum disclosure and maximum exemption consistent with Constitutional Provisions
(D) To provide for effective mechanism for access to information and disclosure by authorities
Answer: C
55.     The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India was established in ……………..
(A) 1991          (B) 1996
(C) 1997                    (D) 2000
Answer: C
56.     Regulatory environment consists
(A) Policies related to imports and exports
(B) Policies related to distribution and pricing
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) Cost of human resources
Answer: C
57.     GDP consists
(A) Per unit market price       (B) Gross output of goods
(C) Service                          (D) All of the above
Answer: D
58.     Which one of the following is not a characteristic of capitalist economic system
(A) Central economic planning
(B) Interdependence
(C) Occupational freedom
(D) Consumer sovereignty
Answer: A
59.     EXIM Policy, 2002-07 started from
(A) 31-03-2002           (B) 28-03-2002
(C) 1-04-2002            (D) 2-04-2002
Answer: A
60.     The economic environment of a business includes
(A) Economic System           (B) Economic Policies
(C) Economic Conditions      (D) All of the above
Answer: D
61.     The Finance Act 2012 gives income tax rates for Assessment Year
(A) 2010-11               (B) 2011-12
(C) 2012-13               (D) 2013-14
Answer: D
62.     The Environment Protection Act came into force from
(A) 1986          (B) 1987
(C) 1988                    (D) 1991
Answer: A
63.     Which of the following is limitation of Environmental Analysis
(A) Does not foretell the future
(B) Not a sufficient guarantor of organizational effectiveness
(C) Offers one basis for organizational learning
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
64.     Which of the following is not the advantage of socialism
(A) Goal oriented economy
(B) Eradication of exploitation
(C) State Capitalism
(D) No cyclical fluctuations
Answer: C
65.     A mixed economy is ……....... a planned economy
(A) Necessarily           (B) Compulsorily
(C) Statutory              (D) Voluntary
Answer: A
66.     "A good environment is good business." Who said ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru            (B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(C) Peter.F.Drucker              (D) Dr.S.S.Rao
Answer: B
67.     SWOT analysis forming part of ……………
(A) Strategy formulation        (B) Long range planning
(C) Short range planning       (D) Strategy implementation
Answer: A
68.     The first Five Year Plan was launched in the year
(A) 1950          (B) 1948
(C) 1951                    (D) 1956
Answer: C
69.     Indian Institute of Science is established by
(A) Tata           (B) Birla
(C) Bajaj                    (D) Singhania
Answer: A
70.     According to BCG matrix a business which has a high growth rate but a weak market share is referred to as
(A) Cash Cow            (B) Dog
(C) Star                     (D) Question Mark
Answer: D
71.     Who is the present Governor of RBI
(A) Sri Osborne Smith          (B) C.D Deshmukh
(C) Duvvuri Subbarao           (D) Raghuram Rajan
Answer: D
72.     Which is the first bank to introduce ATM?
(A) Punjab National Bank      (B) HSBC
(C) Allahabad Bank              (D) State Bank of India
Answer: B
73.     Which bank is known as the Banker's Bank
(A) SBT                               (B) RBI
(C) Punjab National Bank      (D) Punjab National Bank
Answer: B
74.     An efficient capital market is one where
(A) Transactions are cheaply and efficiently carried out
(B) Security prices show smooth patterns of movement
(C) Security prices always rationally reflect all relevant information
(D) Security prices do not reflect all relevant information
Answer: C
75.     IFSC is an ………… digit code
(A) 8      (B) 14
(C) 12    (D) 11
Answer: D
76.     EFT stands for
(A) Easy Fund transfer         (B) Maintenance fund transfer
(C) Paperless Banking          (D) Electronic Funds Transfer
Answer: D
77.     …………. act as a consortium leader of the banking institutions in the district
(A) Lead Bank            (B) Social Banking
(C) Core Banking       (D) District Co-operative Bank
Answer: A
78.     Cheque in circulation for more than six months from the date of the cheque is a
(A) Post dated cheque          (B) Anti dated cheque
(C) Stale cheque                  (D) Bearer cheque
Answer: C
79.     …………… means signing on the back of a negotiable instrument with a view to transfer the the title of the instrument to another person
(A) Underwriting         (B) Document
(C) Instrument           (D) Endorsement
Answer: D
80.     RTGS has been implemented in India w.e.f.
(A) 26 March 2004               (B) 13 May 2004
(C) 26April 2005                   (D) 13 January2003
Answer: A
81.     First stock exchange in India is
(C) Cochin Stock Exchange
(D) Ahmadabad Stock Exchange
Answer: Question Cancelled
82.     Blue chip shares means
(A) Those shares which are listed in the stock exchange
(B) Those shares whose guarantee is given by Government
(C) Those shares on whom dividend is paid at higher rate regularly
(D) Those shares which are issued at first time
Answer: C
83.     Days of grace are allowed to
(A) Demand Bill          (B) Cheque
(C) Time Bill               (D) Promissory Note
Answer: C
84.     In India 14 commercial Banks were nationalized in the year
(A) 1955          (B) 1969
(C) 1972                    (D) 1980
Answer: B
85.     Crossing of the cheque can be made by
(A) Drawer only          (B) Banker only
(C) Any holder            (D) None of these
Answer: C
86.     Accounting principles are acceptable when they, in general, satisfy the basic norms
(A) Usefulness and Objectivity
(B) Objectivity and feasibility
(C) Usefulness, Objectivity and Feasibility
(D) Usefulness, Objectivity, Feasibility and Obligatory
Answer: C
87.     The term ‘playing safe’ relate to
(A) Convention of conservatism
(B) Convention of materiality
(C) Realization concept
(D) Going concern concept
Answer: A
88.     Which of the following method does not consider as a Method of Depreciation?
(A) Double Declining Balance Method
(B) Mileage Method
(C) Service Hours Method
(D) Striking Product Method
Answer: D
89.     According to Rolland, Trail balance is defined as “the final list of balances, ……………”
(A) adjusted and totalled
(B) totalled in a column form
(C) totalled and combined
(D) totalled and accumulated
Answer: C
90.     The case Gurner V/s Murray relate to
(A) Admission of a partner    (B) Retirement of a partner
(C) Death of a partner          (D) Insolvency of a partner
Answer: D
91.     The term ‘credit’ derived from the Latin word
(A) Credre                 (B) Creditum
(C) Creditmn              (D) Croditum
Answer: A
92.     Mr.A, Mr.B are partners. Their old profit sharing ratio was 3:1. Mr. A surrendered 1/32 of his share and Mr. B surrendered 3/32 of his share in favor of Mr.C. Calculate Sacrificing ratio of A & B.
(A) 3/128:3/128                    (B) 93/128:29/128
(C) 3/128:5/128          (D) 5/128:3/128
Answer: A
93.     As per section 128 of the Companies Act, managerial remuneration is
(A) 11 % of Net Profit
(B) 5 % of Net Profit
(C) 10% of Net Profit
(D) 4 % of Net Profit
Answer: A
94.     Green Limited had total purchases of Rs. 80,000 during the year. The opening and closing balance of creditors were Rs.20,000 and 30,000 respectively. Payments made to creditors during the year were Rs 60,000. Discount received was Rs 2,000. The credit purchases during the year …………..
(A) 82,000       (B) 72,000
(C) 86,200       (D) 86,400
Answer: B
95.     The RBI appointed a committee under the chairmanship of K.B Chore in April …………. to review the working of cash credit system.
(A) 1981          (B) 1979
(C) 1982                    (D) 1974
Answer: B
96.     Irrelevance theory of capital structure, assumptions does not include
(A) No corporate tax
(B) Cost of debt is constant
(C) Cost of debt is lower than cost of equity
(D) None of these
Answer: D
97.     A company expects a net income of Rs 80,000. It has Rs 2,00,000 debentures of 8% rate of interest. The equity capitalization rate of the company is 10 %. Compute overall capitalization rate according to Net Income Approach, ignoring income tax.
(A) 9 %            (B) 8.3%
(C) 8.52%        (D) 9.52%
Answer: D
98.     A ‘Yen note’ floated in Germany is an example of
(A) Euro bond                      (B) Yen bond
(C) Floating rate yen bond    (D) Euro commercial paper
Answer: A
99.     Research and Development expenditure is an example of
(A) Capital expenditure                   (B) Revenue expenditure
(C) Deferred revenue expenditure   (D) None of these
Answer: C
100. Section …………. for buy back of shares as per Companies Act 1956
(A) 78              (B) 79
(C) 77              (D) 81
Answer: C

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