Question
Paper Code: 140/2016
Category
Code: 545/2014
Exam:
Assistant Professor (Information Technology)
Department:
Technical Education (Engineering Colleges)
Date
of Test: 27-10-2016
Alpha
code: A
1.
What reflects the quintessence of the
constitution?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) The Preamble
(C) Directive Principles
(D) Fundamental Duties
Answer: B
2.
Which are the articles dealing with the
Centre-State Relations?
(A) Articles 245 to 263
(B) Articles 200 to 215
(C) Articles 145 to 153
(D) Articles 295 to 313
Answer: A
3.
What is the subject matter of articles 346
and 347?
(A) Right to property
(B) Appointment of Judges of High Courts
(C) Official language or languages of a State
(D) Public Service Commission
4.
Which article provides a guaranteed remedy
for the enforcement of fundamental rights?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 226
(D) Article 14
Answer: A
5.
The Central Government has been created the
National Green Tribunal on:
(A) 29th November 2010
(B) 24th October 2009
(C) 12th November 2011
(D) 18th October 2010
Answer: D
6.
In which year Samkshepa Vedartham, the
first book in Malayalam was published?
(A) 1872
(B) 1847
(C) 1772
(D) 1782
Answer: C
7.
Ayyankali organized the first planned peasant
strike in Kerala at Venganoor in:
(A) 1900
(B) 1909
(C) 1910
(D) 1904
Answer: B
8.
List out the odd one from the following
options:
(A) Sree Narayana Guru
(B) Madan Asan
(C) Raman Pillai
(D) Vaikunda Swamigal
Answer: D
9.
Who authored the work Ananda Sutra?
(A) Brahmananda Sivayogi
(B) Sree Narayana Guru
(C) Vaikunda Swamigal
(D) Ayyankali
Answer: A
10. Who
was the martyr of Paliyam Satyagraha?
(A) K. G. Velayudhan
(B) A. G. Velayudhan
(C) I. C. Chacko
(D) Prakash
Answer: B
11. Who
wrote the pamphlet Zau-us-Sabah?
(A) Veliyankot Umar Qazi
(B) Sayyid Sanaullah Makti Thangal
(C) Vakkam Moulavi
(D) Hamadani Thangal
Answer: C
12. In
which years Kumara Guru was nominated to the Sri Mulam popular Assembly?
(A) 1920 and 1921
(B) 1922 and 1923
(C) 1921 and 1930
(D) 1921 and 1931
Answer: D
13. What
was the name of the Madras Governor, who ordered the Travancore govt. to issue orders
for permitting the Channar women to wear jacket and pinafore?
(A) Lord Huntington
(B) Colonel Hitchcock
(C) Lord Baily
(D) Lord Haris
Answer: D
14. The
first woman Chief Secretary of Kerala?
(A) K.O. Aysha Potti
(B) K. K. Usha
(C) Pathma Ramachandran
(D) V. S. Ramadevi
Answer: C
15. Who
was the founder of Sree Ramadasa Asramam?
(A) Sree Neelakanda Gurupadar
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Sree Narayana Guru
(D) Pazhoor Raman Chennan
Answer: A
16. The
founder of Sabari Asram in Palakkad?
(A) Kumaran Asan
(B) Ananda Shenoy
(C) T. R. Krishnaswamy
(D) Pandit Karuppan
Answer: C
17. The
first female Prime Minister Greece?
(A) Alexis Tsipras
(B) Vassiliki Thanou
(C) Neela Vaswani
(D) Svetlana Alexievich
Answer: B
18. Who
won the ‘Global Indian of the Year’ award?
(A) Narendra Modi
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Aravind Kejrival
(D) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
Answer: D
19. Who
won the Nobel Prize 2015 in Economics?
(A) Carli Lloyd
(B) Angus Deaton
(C) Nadine Kefler
(D) Aziz Sanca
Answer: B
20. Who
won the ‘Man of the Match’ award in the final match of the ICC World Twenty 20
in 2016?
(A) M. Samuels
(B) D. Bravo
(C) C. Gale
(D) A. Russel
Answer: A
21. If
1, 2, 3 are the eigen values of a matrix A, then the eigen values of [A - 4l]2
are:
(A) -7, -12, -15
(B) 10, 4, 1
(C) 9, 4, 1
(D) 4, 4, 2
Answer: C
22. The
value of the integral
is
(A) ln5/4
(B) ln2/4
(C) ln2/2
(D) 1/4
Answer: B
23. The
homogeneous linear differential equation if its solutions are e2x,
xe2x, x2e2x is:
ym + Ayn + By’- 8y = 0
where A and B are
(A) 6, -12
(B) - 6, 12
(C) 6, 12
(D) 2, 2
Answer: B
24. The
following is not a simple pole of the function cot Ï€z/(z—0.75)2:
(A) 0.75
(B) 0
(C) -1
(D) 20
Answer: A
25. The
coefficient an in the Fourier cosine series expansion of the
function f(x) = (x-1)2 in the interval 0<x<1 is:
(A) -4/n2Ï€2
(B) -2/n2Ï€2
(C) 2/n2Ï€2
(D) 4/n2Ï€2
Answer: D
26. Centre
of gravity of a right circular cone of base radius r and height h from the base
is:
(A) ¾ h
(B) ¼ h
(C) 3/8 h
(D) 1/8 h
Answer: B
27. What
is the maximum weight that can be lowered by a person who can exert a 500 N
pull on a rope if the rope is wrapped 2 ½ turns around a horizontal spur?
Coefficient of friction between spur and rope is 0.3:
(A) 4.5N
(B) 45 N
(C) 556.59 N
(D) 55659 N
Answer: D
28. What
is the length of a Surveyors chain?
(A) 33 ft
(B) 66 ft
(C) 33 m
(D) 66 m
Answer: B
29. R.L
of a factory floor is 100.00. Staff reading on the floor is 5.62 ft, and the
staff reading when the staff is held inverted with bottom touching the tie beam
of the roof truss is 10.16 ft. What is the height of the tie beam above the
floor?
(A) 15.78 ft
(B) 115.78 ft
(C) 4.54 ft
(D) 104.54 ft
Answer: A
30. The
horizontal distance between the vertical joints in successive courses in brick
work is called:
(A) Perpends
(B) Lap
(C) Arries
(D) Closer
Answer: B
31. Knocking
in a spark ignition engine Is promoted by:
(A) a short flame travel length
(B) normally at the beginning of the
combustion process
(C) increased clearance volume of cylinder
(D) reduced turbulence of the fuel-air
mixture during combustion
Answer: D
32. Centrifugal
pumps operating in series will result in:
(A) Higher discharge
(B) Reduced power consumption
(C) Higher head
(D) Low speed operation
Answer: C
33. A
good refrigerant should have:
(A) High COP and high freezing point
(B) High operating pressures and low freezing
point
(C) High latent heat of vaporization and low
freezing point
(D) High specific volume and high latent heat
of vaporization
Answer: C
34. In
sheet metal blanking, shear is provided on punches and dies so that:
(A) press load is reduced
(B) good cut edge is obtained
(C) warping of sheet is minimised
(D) cut blanks are straight
Answer: A
35. A
curve generated by a fixed point on the circumference of a circle which rolls
without slipping on the outer side of a fixed circle is known as:
(A) Hypocycloid
(B) Epicycloid
(C) Involute
(D) Cycloid
Answer: B
36. Direction
of dynamically induced EMF can be found by:
(A) Maxwell’s cork screw rule
(B) Flemings Right Hand rule
(C) Flemings Left Hand rule
(D) Coulomb’s law
Answer: B
37. Form
factor of sinusoid ally varying alternating current is:
(A) 1.414
(B) 1.11
(C) 1.21
(D) 2.11
Answer: B
38. In
a Delta connected three phase supply system phase current is given by:
(A) √3 times line current
(B) line current
(C) 1/√2 times line current
(D) 1/√3 times line current
Answer: D
39. Earth
wire is usually connected to ........... part of the electric heater.
(A) Metallic body
(B) Phase point
(C) Neutral point
(D) Heating coil
Answer: A
40. Which
of the following DC Motor gives highest No-load speed?
(A) Shunt motor
(B) Cumulatively compound motor
(C) Series motor
(D) Differentially compound motor
Answer: C
41. The
BJT used in an oscillator circuit is biased in ................. region.
(A) Active
(B) Cut-off
(C) Saturation
(B) None of these
Answer: A
42. The
ripple factor of a capacitor filter ‘C’ connected to the output of a full-wave
rectifier with input line frequency ‘ f ’ Hz and load resistance ‘RL’
is:
(A) 1 / 2√3fRLC
(B) 1 / 4√3fRLC
(C) 1 / 2Ï€fRLC
(D) 1 / 2√2fRLC
Answer: B
43. The
bandwidth of wide band frequency modulated wave as per Carson’s rule is:
(A) BT ≈ 2(D+2)W
(B) BT ≈ (2D+1)W
(C) BT ≈ 2(D+1)W
(D) None of these
where D is the deviation ratio and W is the
message signal bandwidth.
Answer: C
44. For
a voltage shunt negative feedback amplifier using operational amplifier, select
the TRUE statement:
(A) Input impedance decreases and output
impedance decreases
(B) Input impedance increases and output
impedance increases
(C) Input impedance increases and output
impedance decreases
(D) Input impedance decreases and output
impedance increases
Answer: A
45. The
type of negative feedback introduced in the Common Emitter amplifier using
voltage divider bias network when the bypass capacitor is removed:
(A) Current shunt
(B) Voltage shunt
(C) Voltage series
(D) Current series
Answer: D
46. The
CPU gets the address of the next instruction to be executed from the:
(A) Instruction Register
(B) Memory Address Register
(C) Program Counter
(D) Accumulator
Answer: C
47. What
is the value of b at the end of execution of the following C program?
int add(int a)
{
static int count = 0;
count = count + a;
return (count);
}
main()
{
int a, b;
for (a=0; a<=4; a++)
b = add(a);
}
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 4
(D) 6
Answer: A
48. What
will be the output of the following C program segment?
int n=1;
switch (n)
{
case 1: printf(“One”);
case 2: printf(“Two”);
case 3:
case 4:
case 5:
default: printf(“Wrong Choice”);
}
(A) One
(B) One Two Wrong Choice
(C) Two
(D) One Two
Answer: B
49. The
default parameter passing mechanism of functions is:
(A) Call by value
(B) Call by reference
(C) Call by result
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
50. What
is the output of this C code?
#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
do
printf(“lnside while loop”);
while(0);
printf(“After while loop”);
}
(A) Infinite loop
(B) Compilation error
(C) After while loop
(D) Inside while loop After while loop
Answer: D
51. To
implement a 2 input EXCLUSIVE OR function, the minimum number of NAND gates required
is (use NAND gates only):
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: C
52. The
number (A72E)16 is equivalent to:
(A) (123456)8 and (22130232)4
(B) (132456)8 and (22130232)4
(C) (123456)8 and (22131122)4
(D) (123546)8 and (22120232)4
Answer: A
53. Which
of the following DMA transfer modes and interrupt handling mechanisms will
enable the highest I/O bandwidth?
(A) Transparent DMA and polling interrupts
(B) Cycle-stealing and vectored interrupts
(C) Block transfer and vectored interrupts
(D) Block transfer and polling interrupts
Answer: D
54. Which
of the following statements is FALSE about relative addressing mode?
(A) It enables reduced instruction size
(B) It allows indexing of array elements with
same instruction
(C) It enables easy relocation of data
(D) It enables faster address calculations
than absolute addressing
Answer: B
55. The
TRAP interrupt mechanism of the 8085 microprocessor:
(A) Executes an instruction supplied by an
external device through the INTA signal
(B) Executes an instruction from memory
location 20H
(C) Executes a NOP
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
56. Which
of the following objects can be used in expressions and scriplets in JSP (Java
Server Pages) Without explicitly declaring them?
(A) Session and request only
(B) Request and response only
(C) Response and session only
(D) Session, request and response
Answer: A
57. The
address bus of 8086 CPU is:
(A) 10 bits
(B) 20 bits
(C) 24 bits
(D) 36 bits
Answer: B
58. The
register which keeps track of the execution of a program and which contains the
memory address of the instruction currently being executed is called:
(A) Index register
(B) Memory address register
(C) Program counter
(D) Instruction register
Answer: C
59. The
register used as a working area in CPU is:
(A) Program counter
(B) Instruction register
(C) Instruction decoder
(D) Accumulator
Answer: D
60. In
the absolute addressing mode:
(A) Operand is inside the instruction
(B) Address of the operand is inside the
instruction
(C) Register containing the address of the
operand is specified inside the instruction
(D) Location of the operand is implicit
Answer: D
61. In
a software project, COCOMO (Constructive Cost Model) is used to estimate
(A) effort and duration based on the size of
the software
(B) size and duration based on the effort of
the software
(C) effort and cost based on the duration of
the software
(D) size, effort and duration based on the
cost of the software
Answer: C
62. A
relation EMPLOYEE is defined with attributes empcode (unique), name, street,
city, state and pin code. For any pin code, there is only one city and state.
Also, for any given street, city and state, there is just one pin code. In normalization
terms, EMPLOYEE is a relation in:
(A) 1NFonly
(B) 2NF and hence also in 1NF
(C) BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF
(D) 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
Answer: B
63. A
software configuration management tool helps in:
(A) Keeping track of the schedule based on
the milestone reached
(B) Maintaining different versions of the
configurable items
(C) Managing manpower distribution by
changing the project structure
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
64. A
relational database contains two tables employee and department in which
employee table has columns emp-no, name and dept-id and department table has columns
dept-id and dept-name. The following insert statement were executed
successfully to populate the empty tables:
Insert into department Values (1, ‘computer
science’)
Insert into department values (2, ‘information
technology’)
Insert into employee values (1, ‘Navin’, 1)
Insert into employee values (2, ‘Mukesh’, 2)
Insert into employee values (3, ‘Suresh’, 1)
How many rows and columns will be retrieved
by the following SQL statement?
Select *from employee, department
(A) 0 row and 4 columns
(B) 3 rows and 4 columns
(C) 3 rows and 5 columns
(D) 6 rows and 5 columns
Answer: D
65. A
table has fields F1, F2, F3, F4, F5 with the following functional dependencies
F1→ F3,
F2→ F4, (F1, F2)→F5 in terms of normalization,
this table is in:
(A) 1NF
(B) 3NF
(C) 2NF
(D) None of these
Answer: A
66. A
B-tree used as an index for a large database table has four levels including
the root node. If a new key is inserted in this index ,then the maximum number
of nodes that could be newly created in the process are:
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
Answer: A
67. Amongst
the ACID properties of a transaction, the ‘durability’ property requires that
the changes made to the database by a successful transaction persist:
(A) Except in case of an operating system
crash
(B) Except in case of a disk crash
(C) Except in case of a power failure
(D) Always, even if there is a failure of any
kind
Answer: D
68. Consider
a relation R with five attributes V, W, X, Y and Z. The following functional dependencies
hold: VY→W, WX→Z and ZY→V. Which of the following is a candidate key for R?
(A) VXZ
(B) VXY
(C) VWXY
(D) VWXYZ
Answer: B
69. Which
of the following is a realization of polymorphism?
(A) Operator overloading
(B) Function overloading
(C) Dynamic binding
(D) All of these
Answer: D
70. A
major advantage of inheritance is:
(A) Reducing the time it takes to create new
objects
(B) Not having to think about how objects
will be used
(C) Reducing the amount of memory required to
execute a program
(D) Enabling people to create useful
applications
Answer: A
71. The
technique used to summarize the financial, statistical, mathematical,
scientific and economic data is:
(A) Computer Art
(B) Image processing
(C) Presentation Graphics
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
72. Graphics
and image processing technique used to produce a transformation of one object
into another is called:
(A) Animation
(B) Morphing
(C) Half toning
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
73. In
a binary tree, for every node the difference between the number of nodes in the
Left and right subtrees is atmost 2. If the height of the tree is h>0, then
the minimum number of nodes in the tree is:
(A) 2h-1
(B) 2 h-1+1
(C) 2h -1
(D) 2h
Answer: B
74. A
binary search tree contains the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8. When the tree is
traversed in pre-order and the values in each node printed out, the sequence of
values obtained is 5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 7. If the tree is traversed in post-order,
the sequence obtained would be:
(A) 8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1
(B) 1,2,3,4,8,7,6,5
(C) 2,1,4,3,6,7,8,5
(D) 2,1,4,3,7,8,6,5
Answer: D
75. Let
G be a weighted undirected graph and e be an edge with maximum weight in G. Suppose
there is a minimum weight spanning tree in G containing the edge e, which of
the following statements is always true?
(A) There exists a cutset in G having all
edges of maximum weight
(B) There exists a cycle in G having all
edges of maximum weight
(C) Edge e cannot be contained in a cycle
(D) All edges in G have the same weight
Answer: C
76. Let
P be a singly linked list. Let Q be the pointer to an intermediate node X in the
list. What is the worst case time complexity of the best known algorithm to
delete the node X from the list?
(A) O(n)
(B) O(log2n)
(C) O(logn)
(D) O(1)
Answer: A
77. A
problem in NP is NP complete if:
(A) Some problem in NP can be reduced to it
in polynomial time
(B) The 3-SAT problem can be reduced to it in
polynomial time
(C) It can be reduced to any other problem in
NP in polynomial time
(D) It can be reduced to the 3SAT problem in
polynomial time
Answer: C
78. The
maximum number of edges in an acyclic undirected graph with n vertices is:
(A) n-1
(B) n+1
(C) n
(D) 2n-1
Answer: A
79. In
a binary tree, the number of internal nodes of degree 1 is 5 and the number of
internal nodes of degree 2 is 10. The number of leaf nodes in the binary tree
is:
(A) 15
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 10
Answer: B
80. Which
of the following sequences of array elements forms a heap?
(A) [23, 17, 14, 6, 13, 10, 1, 12, 7, 5]
(B) [23, 17, 14, 6, 13, 10, 1, 5, 7, 12]
(C) [23, 17, 14, 7, 13, 10, 1, 5, 6, 12]
(D) [23, 17, 14, 7, 13, 10, 1, 12, 5, 7]
Answer: C
81. The
binary relation r = {(1, 1), (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 1), (3, 2),
(3, 3), (3, 4)} on the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4,} is:
(A) Reflexive, symmetric and transitive
(B) Neither reflexive, nor irreflexive but
transitive
(C) Irreflexive and antisymmetric
(B) Irreflexive, symmetric and transitive
Answer: B
82. In
a room containing 28 people, there are 18 people who speak English, 15 people
who speak Hindi and 22 people who speak Kannada, 9 persons speak both English
and Hindi, 11 persons speak both Hindi and Kannada where as 13 persons speak
both Kannada and English. How many people speak all the three languages?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(B) 9
Answer: A
83. Which
one of the following regular expressions is NOT equivalent to the regular expression
((ab)* + c*)*?
(A) (a* + b* + c*)*
(B) (a*b*c*)
(C) (a + b + c)*
(D) (a*b* + c*)*
Answer: C
84. Which
of the following statements is TRUE about the regular expression 01*0?
(A) It represents a finite set of finite
strings
(B) It represents an infinite set of finite
strings
(C) It represents an infinite set of infinite
strings
(D) It represents a finite set of infinite
strings
Answer: B
85. Let
L be a context free language and M a regular language. Then the language L∩M is:
(A) Always regular
(B) Always a deterministic context free
language
(C) Never regular
(D) Always a context free language
Answer: D
86. Consider
a fully associative cache with 8 cache blocks (numbered 0-7) and the following sequence
of memory block requests: 4, 3, 25, 8, 19, 6, 25, 8, 16, 35, 45, 22, 8, 3, 16,
25, 7 if LRU replacement policy is used ,which cache block will have memory
block 7?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Answer: D
87. Two
shared resources R1 and R2 are used by processes P1
and P2. Each process has a certain priority for accessing each
resource. Let Tij denote the priority of Pi for accessing
Rj. A process Pi can snatch a resource Rk from
process Pj, if Tik is greater than Tjk. Given
the following:
I. T11>T21
II. T12>T22
III. T11<T21
IV. T12<T22
Which of the following conditions ensures
that P1 and P2 can never deadlock?
(A) I and IV
(B) II and III
(C) I and II
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
88. Dijkstra’s
banking algorithm in an OS, solves the problem of:
(A) Deadlock avoidance
(B) Deadlock recovery
(C) Mutual exclusion
(D) Context switching
Answer: A
89. In
real-time OS, which of the following is the most suitable scheduling scheme?
(A) Round Roin
(B) First Come First Serve
(C) Preemptive
(D) Random Scheduling
Answer: C
90. A
Linker:
(A) Is not necessary with variable partitions
(B) Must be run after the loader
(C) Creates a load module
(D) Is not needed with a good compiler
Answer: C
91. A
firewall:
(A) Is a computer or router that sits between
the trusted and untrusted
(B) It limits network access between the two
security domains, maintains and logs all connections
(C) A firewall may need to allow http to pass
(D) All of these
Answer: D
92. A
sender is employing public key cryptography to send a secret message to a
receiver. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Sender encrypts using receivers public
key
(B) Sender encrypts using his own public key
(C) Receiver decrypts using senders public
key
(D) Receiver decrypts using his own public
key
Answer: A
93. A
host is connected to a department network which is part of a university
network. The university network in turn, is part of the Internet. The largest
network in which the Ethernet address of the host is unique is:
(A) The subnet to which the host belongs
(B) The department network
(C) The university network
(D) The internet
Answer: D
94. In
a TCP/IP protocol suite, which one of the following is NOT part of the IP
header?
(A) Fragment Offset
(B) Destination IP Address
(C) Source IP Address
(D) Destination port number
Answer: D
95. Count
to infinity is a problem associated with:
(A) Link state routing protocol
(B) Distance vector routing protocol
(C) DNS while resolving host name
(D) TCP for congestion control
Answer: B
96. Which
of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD?
(A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD
protocol
(B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol
(C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation
delay network like satellite network
(D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD
network
Answer: C
97. HELO
and PORT, respectively are commands from the protocols:
(A) FTP and HTTP
(B) TELNET and POP3
(C) HTTP and TELNET
(D) SMTP and FTP
Answer: D
98. A
firewall is to be configured to allow hosts in a private network to freely open
TCP connections and send packets on open connections. However, it will only
allow external hosts to send packets on existing open TCP connections or
connections that are being opened (by internal hosts) but not allow them to
open TCP connections to hosts in the private network. To achieve this the
minimum capability of the firewall should be that of:
(A) A combinational circuit
(B) A push down automaton with two stacks
(C) A finite automaton
(D) A push down automaton with one stack
Answer: B
99. In
TCP, a unique sequence number is assigned to each:
(A) Byte
(B) Message
(C) Word
(D) Segment
Answer: B
100. What
is XML?
(A) Superset of SGML, Extendable Markup
Language
(B) Subset of SGML, Extensible Markup
Language
(C) Like SGML, Extended Markup Language
(D) None of these
Answer: B
 Solved Paper - 545/2014){kind=link}
0 Comments