Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Gr II Medical Solved Paper 018/2018

Question Paper Code: 018/2018
Category Code:
Exam: Staff Nurse Grade II Medical Education
Date of Test: 03-02-2018
Alphacode: A
Final Answer Key

1.         Who made the following statement in the Constituent Assembly during the Assembly Debates?
“The first task of this Assembly is to free India through a new Constitution, to feed the
starving people, and to clothe the naked masses, and to give every Indian the fullest
opportunity to develop himself according to his capacity.”
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) K.T. Shah
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: D
2.         On .................. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(A) 9 December 1946
(B) 11 December 1946
(C) 9 June 1947
(D) 20 June 1947
Answer: B
3.         Which Article of Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?
(A) Article 23
(B) Article 65
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 124
Answer: C
4.         The 73rd and 74th Amendments to the Indian Constitution were related with ...............
(A) Creation of Local Government Institutions
(B) Judicial Review
(C) Unprecedented powers to the Parliament
(D) President’s rule in the states
Answer: A
5.         Name the programme launched by the Department of Women and Child Development, MHRD in 1988 to boost up women’s health, education and political participation.
(A) National Policy for Empowerment of Women
(B) National Perspective Plan for Women
(C) Swa-Shakti
(D) Swayamsiddha
Answer: B
6.         Which British missionary established an English school at Mattancheri with the financial assistance from Cochin Government in the year 1818?
(A) Edward Brennen
(B) Bailey
(C) J. Dawson
(D) Joseph Fenn
Answer: C
7.         Which social reformer of Kerala authored a book titled “Pracheena Malayalam”?
(A) Narayana Guru
(B) Sahodaran Ayyappan
(C) Kumara Guru
(D) Chattambi Swamikal
Answer: D
8.         “Awake, remember the Lord Almighty,
Get up at once and fight injustice”.
Which social reform organization of 20th century Kerala put forth the above slogan?
(A) Yogakshema Sabha
(B) Atmavidya Sangham
(D) Sahodara Prasthanam
Answer: B
9.         Who among the following literary figure of 19th century Kerala wrote a drama titled Ebraikutty?
(A) Kerala Varma Valiya Koyil Tampuran
(B) M.C. Joseph
(C) George Varghese
(D) Kandathil Varghese Mappila
Answer: D
10.     ................ is considered as the “father of political movements in modern
(A) K.P. Karuppan
(B) G.P. Pillai
(C) Dr. Palpu
(D) T.K. Madhavan
Answer: B
11.     In which year A.V. Kuttimalu Amma was elected to the Madras Legislative Assembly for the first time?
(A) 1937
(B) 1940
(C) 1941
(D) 1943
Answer: *
12.     Vivekodayam : SNDP Yogam,  Unni Nambutiri : ..................
(A) Yogakshema Sabha
(B) Samatwa Samajam
(C) Sahodar Prasthanam
Answer: A
13.     Who among the following women social reformer and activist of 20th century Kerala actively participated in the Paliyam Satyagraha of 1947?
(A) Akkamma Cheriyan
(B) Anna Chandi
(C) Kamalambal
(D) Arya Pallam
Answer: D
14.     Match the following with the help of the CODES given below :
(a) Katora Kutaram  (i) C. Krishnan
(b) Deepika      (ii) Vagbhatananda
(c) Abhinava Keralam   (iii) Vakkom Maulavi
(d) Mithavadi    (iv) Makhti Thangal
Codes :
(A) (a-i) (b-ii) (c-iii) (d-iv)
(B) (a-ii) (b-i) (c-iv) (d-iii)
(C) (a-iv) (b-iii) (c-ii) (d-i)
(D) (a-iii) (b-iv) (c-i) (d-ii)
Answer: C
15.     Chronologically arrange the following events of Kerala history and select the answer using the CODES given below :
(1) Ezhava Memorial
(2) Malayalee Memorial
(3) Nivarthana Agitation
(4) Kallumala Samaram
Codes :
(A) (1) (3) (2) (4)
(B) (4) (2) (3) (1)
(C) (2) (1) (4) (3)
(D) (3) (4) (1) (2)
Answer: C
16.     Name the intercontinental ballistic missile successfully launched by North Korea on 4th July 2017 that added a new dimension to the crisis between USA and North Korea :
(A) Hwasong - 14
(B) Pugkusong - 2
(C) Taepodong - 1
(D) Kumsong – 3
Answer: A
17.     Which poet and lyricist of Kerala has been chosen for the Mahakavi P. Kunhiraman Nair Poetry Award for the year 2017?
(A) B.K. Harinarayanan
(B) Kaithapram Damodaran Namboothiri
(C) Rafeeq Ahamed
(D) P.M. Harinarayanan
Answer: C
18.     Expand LPSC.
(A) Liquefied Petroleum Supply Chain
(B) Liquefied Petroleum Systems Centre
(C) Liquid Propulsion Service Centre
(D) Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre
Answer: D
19.     Libreville is the capital city of ................
(A) Madagascar
(B) Gabonese Republic
(C) Gambia
(D) Republic of Mali
Answer: B
20.     Who is the winner of Wimbledon Grand Slam Tennis Tournament (Women’s Singles) for the year 2017?
(A) Garbine Muguruza
(B) Venus Williams
(C) Simona Halep
(D) Victoria Azarenka
Answer: A
21.     Which compound is known as inorganic benzene?
(A) borax
(B) diborane
(C) borazine
(D) boric acid
Answer: C
22.     The designation of an orbital with n=4 and l=2 is :
(A) 4d
(B) 4s
(C) 4p
(D) 4f
Answer: A
23.     The element with highest electronegativity is :
(A) chlorine
(B) bromine
(C) iodine
(D) fluorine
Answer: D
24.     Which of the following is not an antibiotic?
(A) tetracycline
(B) ranitidine
(C) ofloxacin
(D) penicillin
Answer: B
25.     Rosenmund’s reduction of an acid chloride gives :
(A) an ester
(B) an alcohol
(C) an aldehyde
(D) a hydrocarbon
Answer: C
26.     The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band for a material is above 6 eV. The material is ..............
(A) super conductor
(B) an insulator
(C) a dopped semiconductor
(D) a conductor
Answer: B
27.     Radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.53 Å. So the radius of the second orbit will be ..................
(A) 2.12 Å
(B) 4.77 Å
(C) 1.06 Å
(D) 0.27Å
Answer: A
28.     The work done in moving a charge ‘q’ on an equipotential surface is .................
(A) infinity
(B) 0
(C) q/2
(D) 2q
Answer: B
29.     When light of suitable frequency falls on certain metal surfaces, electrons are emitted from it.
This phenomenon is known as ...................
(A) Meissner effect
(B) Zeeman effect
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Photoelectric effect
Answer: D
30.     The core of the transformer is laminated to ................
(A) Increase the magnetic flux linked with it
(B) Increase the flux leakage
(C) Reduce the power loss due to eddy current
(D) Reduce the hysteresis loss
Answer: C
31.     Haemoglobin has maximum affinity for :
(A) CO
(B) CO2
(C) O2
(D) NH3
Answer: A
32.     Heart beat is initiated by :
(A) AV - Node
(B) Purkinjee Fibres
(C) SA - Node
(D) Bundle of His
Answer: C
33.     Neurotransmitter between neuron and muscle cell is :
(A) Serotonine
(B) Acetylcholine
(C) Dopamine
(D) Endorphin
Answer: B
34.     The Rods and Cones of the eye retinal layer are modified :
(A) Unipolar neurons
(B) Multi polar neurons
(C) Bipolar neurons
(D) None
Answer: C
35.     Malpighian body is constituted by :
(A) Glomarulus only
(B) Glomerulus and efferent-vessel
(C) Glomerulus and afferent vessel
(D) Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
Answer: D
36.     Biological product, alpha-1 - antitrypsin is used for the treatment of which of the following diseases :
(A) Cancer
(B) Emphysema
(C) Cystic fibrosis
(D) Phenyl Ketone Urea
Answer: B
37.     The scientific name of ‘Aswgandha’ is :
(A) Withania somnifera
(B) Asparagus racemosus
(C) Woodfordia fruticosa
(D) Adhatoda vasica
Answer: A
38.     The head quarters of Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology is :
(A) Pune
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Delhi
(D) Mumbai
Answer: B
39.     The technique of Polymerase Chain Reaction was developed by :
(A) Maxem and Gilbert
(B) Sanger
(C) Francis Crick
(D) Kary Mullis
Answer: D
40.     Which among the following artificial insemination technology is used for the improvement of cattle population?
Answer: C
41.     Which of the following is not a part of portal vein?
(A) Splenic vein
(B) Hepatic vein
(C) Gastric vein
(D) Cystic vein
Answer: B
42.     A form of self-evaluation that help nurse judge personal performance and make judgment about standards of practice :
(A) Repression
(B) Recollection
(C) Regression
(D) Reflection
Answer: D
43.     The point at which the chlorine demand of water is fully met is called :
(A) disinfection point
(B) break point
(C) saturation point
(D) free point
Answer: B
44.     The conflict carried by individuals not for themselves but for an ideal :
(A) positive conflict
(B) direct conflict
(C) indirect conflict
(D) class conflict
Answer: A
45.     Mosquito which breed in dirty and polluted water :
(A) anopheles
(B) culex
(C) aedes
(D) mansonoides
Answer: B
46.     National program of nutritional support to primary education is also known as :
(A) Special nutrition program
(B) Mid day meal scheme
(C) Mid day meal program
(D) Balawadi nutrition program
Answer: B
47.     Epidemiological triad excludes :
(A) Host
(B) Agent
(C) Environment
(D) Health
Answer: D
48.     Injection of diphtheria antitoxin gives :
(A) Active immunity
(B) Passive immunity
(C) Natural immunity
(D) Cellular immunity
Answer: B
49.     The storage temperature of BCG vaccine :
(A) 2-8oC
(B) 8-10oC
(C) 10-12oC
(D) 6-11oC
Answer: A
50.     A strategy for effective communication where the interviewer validate information from the client without changing the meaning of statement :
(A) Clarifying
(B) Summarizing
(C) Paraphrasing
(D) Focusing
Answer: C
51.     Volume of blood pumped by the heart during 1 minute in a normal healthy adult :
(A) 1000 ml/min
(B) 1500 ml/min
(C) 2000 ml/min
(D) 5000 ml/min
Answer: D
52.     Formula used for converting Celsius scale of temperature to Fahrenheit scale :
(A) (9/5)×C+32
(B) (5/9)×C+32
(C) (9×5/32)−C
(D) (5/9)×C−32
Answer: A
53.     A physician order, means medication to be given only once at a specified time :
(A) stat order
(B) prn order
(C) single order
(D) standing order
Answer: C
54.     The site preferred for giving I/M injection for adults and anyone over 7 months old :
(A) Vastus lateralis
(B) Deltoid
(C) Dorso gluteal
(D) Ventro gluteal
Answer: D
55.     Rising ICP (intra cranial pressure) is accompanied by :
(A) Tachycardia and Hypotension
(B) Bradycardia and Hypotension
(C) Bradycardia and Hypertension
(D) Tachycardia and Hypertension
Answer: C
56.     A process of redirecting the energy produced by unacceptable desires or activities so that they become acceptable :
(A) Reaction formation
(B) Projection
(C) Identification
(D) Sublimation
Answer: D
57.     The suitable method to handle an overactive aggressive patient is :
(A) Accepting criticism and verbal attacks without punishment
(B) Firing the person and applying restraints
(C) Avoiding the person and neglect him for a while
(D) Try to cheer up the person and give praise and encouragement
Answer: A
58.     Recommended protein requirement of an Indian adult :
(A) 1g/kg body Wt
(B) 0.1g/kg body Wt
(C) 2g/kg body Wt
(D) 1.5g/kg body Wt
Answer: A
59.     Malnutrition comprises of following form except :
(A) Under nutrition
(B) Over nutrition
(C) Imbalance
(D) Micro nutrition
Answer: D
60.     The ratio for giving external chest compression and breathing in CPR :
(A) 30 : 2
(B) 15 : 2
(C) 30 : 4
(D) 15 : 4
Answer: A
61.     First aid for strong acid and alkali poisoning :
(A) Gastric lavage
(B) Tickling back of pharynx by finger
(C) Swallowing concentrated salt solution
(D) Do not induce vomiting
Answer: D
62.     Approximate weight of the placenta at term :
(A) 1/4th of baby’s wt
(B) 1/6th of baby’s wt
(C) 1/7th of baby’s wt
(D) 1/3rd of baby’s wt
Answer: B
63.     The part of fetal circulation which becomes fossa ovalis after birth :
(A) Umbilical arteries
(B) Ductus arteriosus
(C) Foramen ovale
(D) Umbilical vein
Answer: C
64.     Which of the following condition of a pregnant women needs immediate attention?
(A) Epigastric pain
(B) Pain radiating to back
(C) Cramps
(D) Heart burn
Answer: A
65.     Which among these is a sign/symptom of impending labour?
(A) Lightening
(B) Quickening
(C) Braxton hicks contraction
(D) Tightening
Answer: A
66.     Drug of choice for the management of eclampsia :
(A) Diazepam
(B) Epsolin
(C) Magnesium sulphate
(D) Labetalol
Answer: C
67.     A nurse in a labour room should do this measure to prevent prolonged labour to a patient :
(A) be with the patient
(B) maintaining partograph
(C) giving oxytocin
(D) assessing maternal and fetal vital signs
Answer: B
68.     Technique used by a midwife in 2nd stage of labour to facilitate delivery over an intact perineum :
(A) Ironing out
(B) Bearing down effort
(C) Fundal pressure
(D) Episiotomy
Answer: A
69.     The measure which is done to manage shoulder dystocia :
(A) Burns Marshall Manoeuvre
(B) Lovset Manoeuvre
(C) Mauriceau-Smellie-Viet Manoeuvre
(D) Mac Robert’s Manoeuvre
Answer: D
70.     The most heat sensitive vaccine which should be stored at −20oC :
(A) DPT vaccine
(B) Hepatitis vaccine
(C) Polio vaccine
(D) Measles vaccine
Answer: C
71.     The calories provided by 100 ml of breast milk to an infant :
(A) 66
(B) 42
(C) 85
(D) 73
Answer: *
72.     Apgar scoring done at which time period has more predictive value of neonatal well being?
(A) 1st min
(B) 10th min
(C) 5th min
(D) 15th min
Answer: C
73.     Damage of 7th or 8th cervical or thoracic nerve roots leads to :
(A) Facial palsy
(B) Erb’s palsy
(C) Klumpke’s palsy
(D) Bells palsy
Answer: C
74.     Kangaroo mother care may be continued for low birth weight babies until :
(A) Baby has no sign of hypothermia
(B) Baby has regular breathing
(C) Baby gains weight around 2500g
(D) Baby has no signs of infection and takes feeding
Answer: C
75.     A child has breath holding spell. What advice will you give the parent to manage the child?
(A) Give punishment to the child
(B) Protect and pamper the child
(C) Neglect the child during spell
(D) Be tolerant, calm and kind
Answer: D
76.     Which of the following is used for grading protein energy malnutrition?
(A) Ballard’s scale
(B) Gomez scale
(C) Bishop scoring
(D) Krammer’s rule
Answer: B
77.     A patient who takes an antihistamine medication diphenhydramine, what would be the expected side effect of the drug?
(A) Nervousness
(B) Palpitation
(C) Dry mouth
(D) Tremors
Answer: C
78.     A patient who is taking beta blockers is monitored for shock. Which manifestation of the shock won’t present to such patient?
(A) Hypotension
(B) Tachycardia
(C) Oliguria
(D) Altered mental status
Answer: B
79.     Which of the following statement is correct about malignant tumour?
(A) Malignant tumour stop dividing prematurely
(B) Malignant tumour invade surrounding cells and tissues
(C) Malignant tumour remains localized
(D) Malignant tumours have defective cell communication
Answer: B
80.     The cost effective way to prevent spreading of microorganism :
(A) Wearing mask
(B) Wearing gloves
(C) Hand hygiene
(D) Wearing gown
Answer: C
81.     Ponderal index of term gestational age normal neonate :
(A) >2.5
(B) <2.5
(C) <2
(D) 2
Answer: A
82.     The immediate action taken by a first aider to rescue a victim of heat stroke :
(A) Give oral fluids
(B) Fanning of victim
(C) Remove victim from hot environment
(D) Spraying water over the victim
Answer: C
83.     Which of the following is not a cause for pernicious anaemia?
(A) Bleeding
(B) Chronic alcoholism
(C) Long term use of certain antibiotics
(D) Lack of intrinsic factor
Answer: A
84.     Which of the following surgery leads to Dumping syndrome?
(A) Appendectomy
(B) Gastrectomy
(C) Cholecystectomy
(D) Sigmoidectomy
Answer: B
85.     Which of the lab value would the nurse to be evaluated for a patient with pancreatitis?
(A) Serum.lipase
(B) Serum.CPK
(C) Serum.ALP
(D) Serum.AST
Answer: A
86.     The extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic agents are managed with following group of drugs except :
(A) Dopamine drugs
(B) Anticholinergic
(C) Antihistamines
(D) Barbiturates
Answer: D
87.     Among the following which one is a delusional disorder?
(A) Trance
(B) Capuras’ syndrome
(C) Dissociative fugue
(D) Ganser’s syndrome
Answer: B
88.     Which one is a fact about persons with suicidal tendency?
(A) Suicide happens without warning
(B) Once a person is suicidal, he/she is suicidal forever
(C) Most suicidal person are undecided about dying or living
(D) Suicidal persons are fully intent on dying
Answer: C
89.     Publication of a false statement about an individual made either verbally or in some other form to the third person :
(A) Battery
(B) Displacement
(C) Depersonalization
(D) Defamation
Answer: D
90.     Most frequent neurotic disorder in puerperium :
(A) Postpartum blues
(B) Postpartum depression
(C) Postpartum psychosis
(D) Delivery related stress and anxiety
Answer: B
91.     Which of the following is used in drug dependence to prevent relapse?
(A) Naloxone
(B) Naltrexone
(C) Neuroleptic
(D) Nomifensine
Answer: B
92.     The most commonest psychiatric disorder after head injury is :
(A) Mania
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Depression
(D) Phobia
Answer: A
93.     Which of the following is not an element of management?
(A) Reporting
(B) Organising
(C) Staffing
(D) Commanding
Answer: D
94.     Ability of an instrument to detect changes or differences when they occur :
(A) Validity
(B) Reliability
(C) Objectivity
(D) Sensitivity
Answer: D
95.     Which among the following is not a fact about EBP (evidence based practice)?
(A) Is use of best evidence to make decisions about care and treatment.
(B) Contribute to expand the knowledge base of profession.
(C) Includes patient preferences and values.
(D) Is another term for utilization of research findings.
Answer: D
96.     As per the triage system, green colour code refers to :
(A) Injuries are life threatening but survivable with minimal intervention.
(B) Injuries are minor and treatment can be delayed for hours to days.
(C) Injuries are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with care.
(D) Injuries are significant and require medical care but can wait for hours without threat to life.
Answer: B
97.     The audit which is conducted between 2 regular audit :
(A) Interval audit
(B) Final audit
(C) Interim audit
(D) Continuous audit
Answer: C
98.     One nurse is assigned the responsibility for the case of each patient from admission to discharge :
(A) Case method
(B) Primary nursing
(C) Functional method
(D) Team nursing
Answer: B
99.     Informal communication is also known as :
(A) Diagonal communication
(B) Cross wise communication
(C) Grape wine communication
(D) Horizontal communication
Answer: C
100. Truth telling about disease and its prognosis to terminally ill patients, such situation which ethical principle is followed by a nurse?
(A) Confidentiality
(B) Fidelity
(C) Justice
(D) Veracity
Answer: D

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